Monday 23 January 2017

Latest Cardiology Nurse Interview questions and answers pdf

The Below list of questions help you answer and pass for all types of cardiac nurse job interview. Please pay attention to materials below that help you more for cardiac nurse interview: methods of interview, interview process for each employer, cardiac nurse behavioral based interview, cardiac nurse phone interviews
Cardiology Nurse Interview Questions and Answers

Cardiology Nurse Interview Questions and Answers List

1. Why did you choose your specialty area of nursing?
Whether the area of specialization is ER, Occupational Health, Community Health, ICU or any other, the key to answering interview questions about your nursing career choice is to be very specific about why you chose it. What influenced you in your choice? How did you explore your options? Highlight how your strengths are best utilized in this area and how it suits your personal competencies.

2. Why did you leave your last job?
Stay positive regardless of the circumstances. Never refer to a major problem with management and never speak ill of supervisors, co-workers or the organization. If you do, you will be the one looking bad. Keep smiling and talk about leaving for a positive reason such as an opportunity, a chance to do something special or other forward-looking reasons.

3. Why do you want this job: cardiac nurse?
This question typically follows on from the previous one. Here is where your research will come in handy. You may want to say that you want to work for a company that is X, Y, Z, (market leader, innovator, provides a vital service, whatever it may be). Put some thought into this beforehand, be specific, and link the company’s values and mission statement to your own goals and career plans.

4. What have you done to improve your knowledge for cardiac nurse in the last year?
Try to include improvement activities that relate to the job. A wide variety of activities can be mentioned as positive self-improvement. Have some good ones handy to mention.

5. Describe to me the position: cardiac nurse you’re applying for.
This is a “homework” question, too, but it also gives some clues as to the perspective the person brings to the table. The best preparation you can do is to read the job description and repeat it to yourself in your own words so that you can do this smoothly at the interview.

6. What is your greatest strength?
This is your time to shine. Just remember the interviewer is looking for work related strengths. Mention a number of them such as being a good motivator, problem solver, performing well under pressure, being loyal, having a positive attitude, eager to learn, taking initiative, and attention to detail. Whichever you go for, be prepared to give examples that illustrate this particular skill.

7. What kind of salary do you need?
This is a loaded question and a nasty little game that you will probably lose if you answer first. So, do not answer it. Instead, say something like, that’s a tough question. Can you tell me the range for this position? In most cases, the interviewer, taken off guard, will tell you. If not, say that it can depend on the details of the job. Then give a wide range.

114 TOP Cardiology Multiple choice questions and answers

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Cardiology Multiple choice questions and answers

Cardiology Objective type Questions and Answers List

1- A previously well 27-year-old woman presents with a history of transient ischaemic attack affecting her right side and speech. She had returned to the United Kingdom from a holiday in New Zealand two days previously. On examination there was nothing abnormal to find. An ECG, chest X-ray, CT brain scan and routine haematology and biochemistry were all normal. What is the most likely underlying abnormality?
1) atrial myxoma
2) carotid artery stenosis
3) embolus from paroxysmal atrial fibrillation
4) patent foramen ovale
5) subarachnoid haemorrhage
Answer-4
This is a typical cause of stroke in a young person due to prolonged immobilty. Deep vein thrombosis with patent foramen ovale will cause paradoxical embolism
and stroke.

2- A 51-year-old woman has had several syncopal episodes over the past year. Each episode is characterized by sudden but brief loss of consciousness. She has no chest pain. She has no ankle edema. On brain MRI there is a 1.5 cm cystic area in the left parietal cortex. A chest X-ray shows no cardiac enlargement, and her lung fields are normal. Her serum total cholesterol is 6.5 mmol/L. Which of the following cardiac lesions is she most likely to have?
1) Cardiac amyloidosis
2) Ischemic cardiomyopathy
3) Left atrial myxoma
4) Mitral valve prolapse
5) Tuberculous pericarditis
Answer-3
Atrial myxomas are more often on the left. Though benign, they can occlude the mitral valve and produce sudden loss of cardiac output. They may embolize small
portions of themselves or thrombus forned over their surface.

3- A 66-year-old man has developed chronic renal failure with a serum urea of 60 mmol/L and creatinine of 650 micromol/L. Auscultation of the chest reveals a friction rub over the cardiac apex. He is most likley to have a pericarditis that is termed?
1) Constrictive
2) Fibrinous
3) Hemorrhagic
4) Purulent
5) Serous
Answer-2
The uraemia leads to exudation of fibrin onto the epicardial and pericardial surfaces. Haemorrhagic pericarditis is more typical of tuberculosis or metastatic
tumour. Serous pericarditis is more typical of collagen vascular diseases.

4- Which ONE of the following is a contraindication to thrombolysis?
1) age over 75 years
2) the presence of atrial fibrillation
3) asthma
4) pregnancy
5) background diabetic retinopathy
Answer-4

5- Which of the following anti-microbials is associated with prolongation
of the QT interval?
1) Co-amoxiclav
2) Gentamicin
3) Cefuroxime
4) Erythromycin
5) Isoniazid
Answer-5
The macrolides are associated with a prolongation of the QT interval. Other
antimicrobials associated with prolonged QT include quinine, levofloxacin.

6- A 60-year-old man presents with an inferior MI and receives thrombolysis. 4 hours following initial presentation he becomes acutely breathless. His ECG demonstrates sinus tachycardia (rate 108bpm) with T wave inversion inferiorly. His ST segments are normal. On examination his JVP is elevated at 5 cm. Chest was clear to auscultation. Following 80 mg of Frusemide he deteriorates. His BP is now 80/60 and his urine output over the last 2 hours is 5 mls. What is the best investigative
measure?
1) Arterial Blood Gases
2) Central Venous Pressure Monitoring
3) Chest X-Ray
4) Echocardiography
5) Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure Monitoring
Answer-5

7- Which of the following is a recognised feature of massive pulmonary embolism?
1) reduced plasma lactate levels
2) an increase in serum troponin levels
3) an arterial pH less than 7.2
4) blood gases show increased pCO2 on air
5) normal D-dimer levels
Answer-2

8- A 60-year-old man has worsening congestive heart failure with increasing pulmonary oedema. His blood pressure is normal. He has been healthy all his life with no major illnesses. A serum glucose is 5.6 mmol/L. His total serum cholesterol is 4.8 mmol/L. The serum creatine kinase is not elevated. The most likely explanation for these findings is?
1) Alcoholic cardiomyopathy
2) Aortic dissection
3) Calcified bicuspid aortic valve
4) Mitral valve annulus calcification
5) Tricuspid valve endocarditis
Answer-3

9- During auscultation of the heart you discover a wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound. In which of the following conditions does this occur?
1) an uncomplicated ASD
2) Fallot's tetralogy
3) aortic stenosis
4) Right Bundle Branch Block
5) constrictive pericarditis
Answer-1
There is a single sound in Fallot's because of an absent P2. Aortic stenosis leads to reversed splitting (also seen with LBBB and ventricular pacemaker). In RBBB there
is wide splitting of S2 but it is not fixed.

10- A 62 year old man has experienced substernal chest pain upon exertion with increasing frequency over the past 1 year. An electrocardiogram shows T wave inversion in the anterolateral leads at rest. He has a total serum cholesterol of 7.0 mmol/l. On angiography, he has an 85% narrowing of the left anterior descending artery.
Which of the following events is most likely to occur in this patient?
1) A systemic artery embolus from thrombosis in a peripheral vein.
2) A systemic artery embolus from a left atrial mural thrombus.
3) Pulmonary embolism from a left ventricular mural thrombus
4) A systemic artery embolus from a left ventricular mural thrombus.
5) Pulmonary embolism from thrombosis in a peripheral vein.
Answer-4
The suggestion here is that this man has coronary artery disease with an impending myocardial infarction. Infarction of the LAD would cause necrosis of the left ventricle. Thrombus may form on an area of dyskinetic ventricle. Therefore he is most at risk of embolus of thrombus from the LV.

11- A 17 year old girl was found collapsed and drowsy. Her 12-lead ECG showed a sinus tachycardia of 120 beats per minute with a corrected QT interval of 500 ms (normal <470). Which of the following is the most likely cause of her presentation?
1) Amphetamine
2) Diphenhydramine
3) Glue sniffing
4) Methadone
5) Methanol
Answer-2
Many drugs can cause a prolonged QT interval. more

12- A randomised double-blind placebo controlled study of a cholesterollowering drug for the primary prevention of coronary heart disease was conducted. It had a five-year follow up period.
The results showed an absolute risk of myocardial infarction in the group-receiving placebo during was 10 per cent. The relative risk of those given the cholesterol lowering medication was 0.8 What number of patients will need to be treated with the drug for five years to prevent one myocardial infarction?
1) 20
2) 40
3) 50
4) 80
5) 100
Answer-3

13- Which ONE of the following is true regarding acute pulmonary embolism?
1) a normal ECG excludes the diagnosis
2) embolectomy is more effective than thrombolysis in improving survival
3) Heparin is as effective as thrombolytic therapy
4) the presence of hypoxaemia is an indication for thrombolysis
5) thrombolysis administered through a peripheral vein is as effective as through a pulmonary artery catheter
Answer-5

14- A 70-year-old woman has a history of dyspnoea and palpitations for six months. An ECG at that time showed atrial fibrillation. She was given digoxin, diuretics and aspirin. She now presents with two short-lived episodes of altered sensation in the left face, left arm and leg. There is poor coordination of the left hand. ECHO was normal as was a CT head scan.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
1) anticoagulation
2) carotid endarterectomy
3) clopidogrel
4) corticosteroid treatment
5) no action
Answer-1

15- A 21 year old man with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy presents in clinic with dizzy spells but has not had any syncopal episodes. Which of the following, if present, would be indicate an increased risk of sudden cardiac death?
1) Asymmetric septal hypertrophy with maximum wall thickness of 2.1 cm
2) Blood Pressure drop of 20mmHg during peak exercise tolerance testing
3) Left Ventricular Outflow Tract Gradient of 80 mmHg
4) Systolic Anterior Movement of the mitral valve on echocardiography
5) Worsening exertional angina
Answer-2

16- Whilst attending the cardiology clinic, the staff nurse measures the blood pressure of a 61-year-old man, and finds that it is 183/100 mmHg sitting and 190/105 standing. He has a heart rate of 81/minute, with an irregularly irregular rhythm. On auscultation of the heart, there are no murmurs, but he has bibasilar crackles on chest examination. Which of the following pathological findings is most likely to be present?
1) Left ventricular hypertrophy
2) Left atrial myxoma
3) Occlusive coronary atherosclerosis
4) Cor pulmonale
5) Mitral regurgitation
Answer-1

17- A 24-year-old woman develops infective endocarditis involving the aortic valve. She receives a porcine bioprosthesis because of her desire to have children and not to take anticoagulant medication. After ten years, she must have this prosthetic valve replaced. Which of the following pathologic findings in the bioprosthesis has most likely led to the need for replacement?
1) Calcification with stenosis
2) Dehiscence
3) Infective endocarditis
4) Strut failure
5) Thrombosis
Answer-1
The bioprosthesis has the advantage of not requiring anticoagulation, but it does not wear well with time, and typically must be replaced within 5 to 10 years

18- A randomised, double-blind, placebo controlled trial of a cholesterol lowering drug in the primary prevention of coronary heart disease is reported.
1000 subjects are treated with the active drug, and 1000 are given placebo. They are followed up over a five year period and 100 individuals in the placebo group and 80 in the treatment group suffer a myocardial infarction.
What is the annual percentage risk of myocardial infarction in the group treated with placebo?
1) 0.5%
2) 2%
3) 5%
4) 8%
5) 10%
Answer-2

19- A 25-year-old previously healthy woman has worsening fatigue with dyspnoea, palpitations, and fever over the past one week. Her vital signs on admission to the hospital show Temperature 38.9°C Respiratory rate 30/min Pulse 105 bpm and BP 95/65 mmHg. Her heart rate is irregular.
An ECG shows diffuse ST-T segment changes. A Chest X-ray shows mild cardiomegaly. An echocardiogram shows slight mitral and tricuspid regurgitation but no valvular vegetations. Her troponin I is 12 ng/mL.
She recovers over the next two weeks with no apparent sequelae. Which of the following laboratory test findings best explains the underlying etiology for these events?
1) ANCA titer of 1:80
2) Anti-streptolysin O titer of 1:512
3) Blood culture positive for Streptococcus, viridans group
4) Coxsackie B serologic titer of 1:160
5) Total serum cholesterol of 9.6 mmol/l
Answer-4

20- A 74-year-old man presented with acute pain, pallor and absent pulses in his right leg. Investigations revealed an embolus in his femoral artery.
What is the most likely source of this embolus?
1) marantic endocarditis
2) paradoxical emboli
3) rheumatic endocardial vegetations
4) right ventricular thrombi
5) thrombi from an atheromatous aorta
Answer-5

21- Which of the following concerning congenital heart disease is correct?
1) ASD is the commonest malformation at birth
2) congenital complete heart block is usually associated with Anti-Ro antibodies in the mother
3) Ebstein's anomaly is associated with maternal exposure to lithium carbonate
4) Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is characterised by a large, dilated left ventricle
5) Osteogenesis imperfecta is associated with aortic stenosis
Answer-3

22- Which of the following regarding the anatomy of the heart is true?
1) The aortic valve is tricuspid.
2) The ascending aorta is entirely outside the pericardial sac.
3) The left atrial appendage is identified readily by transthoracic echocardiography.
4) The pulmonary trunk lies anterior to the ascending aorta.
5) The right atrium is posterior to the left atrium.
Answer-1

23- A patient presents with atrial fibrillation and later they revert to sinus rhythm. Under which of the following circumstances is the patient more likely to remain in sinus rhythm?
1) age > 75 years old
2) been commenced on warfarin
3) left atrium size > 6 cm on ECHO
4) short history of AF
5) ventricular rate on presentation of 130 bpm
Answer-4

24- A 68-year-old man has been very ill for months following the onset of chronic liver disease with hepatitis C infection. He experiences a sudden loss of consciousness and then exhibits paraplegia on the right. A cerebral angiogram reveals lack of perfusion in the left middle cerebral artery distribution. The most likely cardiac lesion to be associated with
this finding is?
1) Acute rheumatic fever
2) Left atrial myxoma
3) Libman-Sacks endocarditis
4) Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis
5) Paradoxical thromboembolus
Answer-4

25- A 65 year old man presents with severe central crushing chest pain. ECG shows evidence of an inferior myocardial infarction. He receives TPA, Heparin and Aspirin. Four hours after initial presentation, he starts feeling dizzy and breathless. His pulse is 40 bpm regular, BP 80/50. Heart sounds are soft and chest clear to auscultation. ECG shows 2:1 AV block with T wave inversion inferiorly. IV atropine was administered but had no effect. What is the next most important treatment?
1) IV Dopamine.
2) IV Isoprenaline.
3) Insert a permanent pacemaker.
4) Insert a temporary pacemaker.
5) Monitor his progress.
Answer-4

26- A 70-year-old male is referred by his GP for management of recently diagnosed congestive heart failure. The patient has a history of poorly controlled hypertension. Over the last three months he has been aware of deteriorating shortness of breath, fatigue, and orthopnea. Over the last month he had been commenced on Digoxin (62.5 micrograms daily), Frusemide (80 mg daily), and amiloride 10 mg. On examination he has a pulse of 96 bpm regular, a blood pressure of 132/88 mmHg. His JVP was not raised, he had some scattered bibasal crackles on auscultation with a displaced apex beat in the anterior axillary line, 6th intercostal space. Auscultation of the heart revealed no murmurs and he had peripheral oedema to the mid tibia.
Investigations showed: electrolytes normal
serum urea concentration 17 mmol/l (NR 2-8 mmol/l)
creatinine 175 micromol/l (NR 55-110)
Serum digoxin 0.7 ng/mL {therapeutic: 1.0-2.0}
One month previously his urea had been 11 mmol/l and creatinine 110
micromol/l. An ECG reveals left ventricular hypertrophy and Chest X-ray
shows cardiomegaly and calcified aorta.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
1) Add an ACE inhibitor to the current regimen
2) Add atenolol at a dose of 25mg daily
3) Increase digoxin to 0.25 mg daily
4) Increase frusemide to 80 mg twice daily
5) Maintain on current therapy.
Answer-1

27- A 14-year-old boy presents with hypertension. Which of the following statements concerning hypertension in the young is true?
1) Sodium nitroprusside is useful for the long-term treatment of severe cases.
2) Headache is the usual presenting feature.
3) It is defined as systolic blood pressure above the 99th centile for age.
4) Abnormalities are frequently seen on DMSA scan.
5) Aortic coarctation is the commonest secondary cause.
Answer-4

28- A 23 year old male presents with a deep vein thrombosis. He has no past medical history but his mother has suffered from deep vein thromboses. Which of the following is likely to be found on haematological assessment?
1) Factor V Leiden mutation
2) Protein S deficiency
3) Protein C deficiency
4) Antithrombin deficiency
5) Lupus anticoagulant
Answer-4

29- In a normal heart, the oxygen saturation of a sample of blood taken from a catheter in the pulmonary capillary wedge position should be equal to a sample from which of the following?
1) coronary sinus
2) femoral artery
3) pulmonary artery
4) right atrium
5) right ventricle
Answer-2

30 -A 60-year-old man with a past history of controlled hypertension presents with acute onset weakness of his left arm, that resolved over 12 hours. He had suffered two similar episodes over the last three months. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 132/82 mmHg and he is in atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 85 per minute. CT brain scan is normal.
What is the most appropriate management?
1) amiodarone
2) aspirin
3) digoxin
4) dipyridamole
5) warfarin
Answer-5

31- In a patient presenting with aortic stenosis, which of the following findings would be most helpful in establishing a diagnosis of congenital bicuspid valve as the etiology?
1) age
2) calcified leaflets
3) commissural fusion on ECHO
4) negative history for rheumatic fever
5) systolic ejection click
Answer-5

32- A 55-year-old woman was found to have ++ glycosuria and had a maternal history of Type II diabetes mellitus. She was a smoker of 20 cigarettes per day. Examination reveals no specific abnormalities apart from a BMI of 30. Blood pressure was 132/88 mmHg. Investigations reveal:
serum creatinine 80 µmol/L (60 – 110)
plasma glucose (fasting) 11.3 mmol/L (3.0 – 6.0)
total serum cholesterol 5.5 mmol/L (<5.2)
HDL cholesterol 1.4 mmol/L (>1.55)
What is most likely to improve her life expectancy?
1) Metformin 500 mg bd
2) Ramipril 10 mg daily
3) Simvastatin 10 mg daily
4) Stopping smoking
5) Weight loss to achieve a BMI of 25
Answer-4

33- Which of the following concerning the use of intravenous bicarbonate in cardiorespiratory arrest is correct?
1) exacerbates intracellular acidosis
2) has a positive inotropic effect on ischaemic myocardium
3) improves oxygen release to the tissues
4) increases cerebral blood flow
5) reduces pre-existent hyperkalemia
Answer-1

34- Primary prevention trials for the treatment of hypercholesterolaemia reveal a reduction in all cause mortality following treatment with which of the following?
1) Fibrates
2) Fish Oils
3) Nicotinic acid
4) Resins
5) Statins
Answer-5

35- A 30-year-old man presents with a history of transient loss of consciousness and palpitations. His ECG shows ventricular tachycardia.
Which of the following treatments should be avoided?
1) adenosine
2) amiodarone
3) DC cardioversion
4) flecainide
5) verapamil
Answer-5

36- A 56 year old male with left ventricular systolic dysfunction was dyspnoeic on climbing stairs but not at rest. The patient was commenced on ramipril and frusemide.
Which one of the following drugs would improve the patient's prognosis?
1) Amiodarone
2) Amlodipine
3) Bisoprolol
4) Digoxin
5) Nitrate therapy
Answer-3
This patient has NYHA stage II heart failure. Studies such as CIBIS-II and MERITHF reveal that beta-blockers significantly reduce morbidity and mortality in heart
failure.

37- A 44-year-old man has had no major medical problems throughout his life, except for arthritis pain involving all extremities for the past couple of years. He has had worsening orthopnoea and ankle oedema in the past six months. He is afebrile. There is no chest pain. A chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly with both enlarged left and right heart borders, along with pulmonary oedema. Laboratory test findings include sodium 139 mmol/L, potassium 4.3 mmol/L, urea 7 mmol/L creatinine 95 µmol/L, and glucose 8.6 mmol/L. Which of the following additional laboratory test findings is he most likely to have?
1) Anti-centromere antibody titer of 1:320
2) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 79 mm/Hr
3) Haemoglobin of 10.7 g/dL with MCV of 72 fL
4) Serum ferritin of 3400 pmol/L
5) Spherocytes in his peripheral blood smear
Answer-4

38- Which of the following is a recognised feature of abetalipoproteinaemia?
1) a high serum cholesterol
2) palmar xanthomas
3) advanced atherosclerotic vascular disease
4) abnormal red blood cell morphology
5) severe mental retardation
Answer-4
Acanthocytes are seen in abetalipoproteinaemia.
Retinitis pigmentosa is seen in abetalipoproteinaemia. Mental retardation is not present but motor abnormalities and neurodegenerative are seen.

39- Which of the following infections is least likely to cause myocarditis?
1) Coxsackie virus
2) Diphtheria
3) Chagas Disease
4) Syphillis
5) Toxoplasmosis
Answer-4
Quaternary syphilis involves the cardiovascular system commonly in form of ascending aortic aneurysm and aortic regurgitation. Diphtheria,coxsackie virus,
Chagas disease and toxoplasmosis are all associated with myocarditis.

40- A 68 year old woman was admitted to hospital with evidence of biventricular cardiac failure. On examination her pulse was 100 beats per minute (sinus rhythm), and her blood pressure was 140/60 mmHg. She had haemorrhages in both fundi. Her condition improved after intravenous diuretics.
Investigations revealed:
haemoglobin 5.6 g/dl (11.5 – 16.5)
haematocrit 0.19 (0.36 – 0.47)
MCV 118 fl (80 – 96)
MCH 33.0 pg (28 – 32)
WCC 3.4 x 109/L (4 – 11)
platelet count 95 x 109/L (150 – 400)
What is the next most appropriate step in management?
1) blood transfusion
2) bone marrow aspiration
3) intramuscular vitamin B12 alone
4) intramuscular vitamin B12 and oral folic acid together
5) oral folic acid alone
Answer-2

41- Which of the following compounds has a vasodilating effect?
1) Antidiuretic hormone
2) Calcitonin
3) Endothelin
4) Renin
5) Somatostatin
Answer-2

42- Which of the following may be responsible for a hypokalaemic
hypertension ?
1) Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia
2) Barter's syndrome
3) Diabetic nephropathy
4) Liddle's syndrome
5) Type IV renal tubular acidosis
Answer-4

43- A 52 year old sales representative is admitted with an inferior myocardial infarction. He receives thrombolysis and makes an uneventful recovery. He is discharged on atenolol, aspirin and atorvastatin. He enquires how long after his MI must he wait before he is able to drive?
1) One week
2) Two weeks
3) Four weeks
4) Three months
5) Six months
Answer-3

44- A 35 year old woman presented with a history of intermittent lightheadedness.
Clinical examination and 12-lead ECG were normal.
Which of the following, if present on a 24 hour Holter ECG tracing, would be the most clinically important?
1) Atrial premature beats.
2) Profound sleep-associated bradycardia.
3) Supraventricular tachycardia.
4) Transient Mobitz type 1 atrioventricular block.
5) Vertricular premature beats.
Answer-3

45- A 57-year-old man develops deep venous thrombosis during a hospitalization for prostatectomy. He exhibits decreased mental status with right hemiplegia, and a CT scan of the head suggests an acute cerebral infarction in the distribution of the left middle cerebral artery. A chest X-ray reveals cardiac enlargement and prominence of the main pulmonary arteries that suggests pulmonary hypertension. His serum troponin I is <0.4 ng/mL. Which of the following lesions is most likely to
be present on echocardiography?
1) Coarctation of the aorta
2) Dextrocardia
3) Pulmonary stenosis
4) Tetralogy of Fallot
5) Ventricular septal defect
Answer-5

46- A 60 year old man had a myocardial infarction 6 weeks ago. He is taking aspirin 75 mg/day and metoprolol 50mg 2/day. During a routine follow-up Exercise Test he has a 20 beat run of non-sustained VT. He achieved stage 4 of the Bruce protocol and 92 % of his target heart rate.
The non-sustained VT occurred halfway through Stage 2. ST segments were normal during the study. What is the definitive investigation?
1) Coronary angiography.
2) Echocardiogram.
3) Electrophysiological study.
4) Thallium exercise scan.
5) 24 hour Holter monitor.
Answer-3

47- A 55-year-old woman has had worsening shortness of breath for several years. She now has to sleep sitting up on two pillows. She has difficulty swallowing. There is no history of chest pain. She is afebrile. Recently, she suffered a stroke with left hemiparesis. A chest X-ray reveals a near-normal left ventricular size with a prominent left atrial border. Which of the following conditions is most likely to account for
these findings?
1) Aortic coarctation
2) Cardiomyopathy
3) Essential hypertension
4) Left renal artery stenosis
5) Mitral valve stenosis
Answer-5

48- Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs may be used in the treatment of long QT syndrome?
1) Amiodarone
2) Atenolol
3) Flecainide
4) Propofanone
5) Sotalol
Answer-2

49- A 70 year old male was receiving amiodarone 200 mg daily for intermittent atrial fibrillation. However, he was aware of tiredness and lethargy. He appeared clinically euthyroid with no palpable goitre.
Investigations revealed:
Serum free T4 23pmol/L (9-26)
Serum total T3 0.8 nmol/L (0.9-2.8)
Serum TSH 8.2 mU/L (<5)
Which of the following statements would explain these results?
1) Abnormal thyroxine binding globulin
2) Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism
3) 'sick euthyroid' syndrome
4) Spontaneous hypothyroidism
5) TSH secreting pituitary adenoma
Answer-2
The results show normal T4, low T3 with elevated TSH. These results are typical of amiodarone induced hypothyroidism which inhibits the peripheral conversion of T4
to T3.

50- A 65-year-old woman, a heavy smoker for many years, has had worsening dyspnoea for the past 5 years, without a significant cough. A chest X-ray shows increased lung size along with flattening of the diaphragms, consistent with emphysema. Over the next several years she develops worsening peripheral oedema. BP 115/70 mmHg. Which of the following cardiac findings is most likely to be present?
1) Constrictive pericarditis
2) Left ventricular aneurysm
3) Mitral valve stenosis
4) Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis
5) Right ventricular hypertrophy
Answer-5
This lady has Chronic Obstructive Airways disease and subsequent Cor Pulmonale leading to right heart failure. Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis is a condition
seen in frail ill individuals.

51- An elderly man with a history of asthma, congestive heart failure, and peptic ulcer disease is admitted with bronchospasm and rapid atrial fibrillation. He recieves frequent nebulised salbutamol and IV digoxin loading, his regular medications are continued. 24 hours after admission his serum potassium is noted to be 2.8 mmol/l. Which of his medications is most likely to have caused this abnormality.
1) Digoxin
2) ACE inhibitor
3) Salbutamol
4) Ranitidine
5) Spironolactone
Answer-3

52- In the diagnosis of rheumatic fever, which of the following may be helpful?
1) A generalised macular-papular rash.
2) ASO titre of less than 1:200.
3) Polyarthritis.
4) Staphylococcus aureus grown on throat culture.
5) Splinter haemorrhages.
Answer-3

53- A 55 year old man presents with gynaecomastia while receiving treatment for Heart failure.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be the cause of his gynaecomastia
1) Amiloride
2) Carvedilol
3) Frusemide
4) Omeprazole
5) Ramipril
Answer-4
Omeprazole is associated with gynaecomastia.

54- A 78 year old female is referred by her GP with high blood pressure. Over the last three months her blood pressure is noted to be around
180/80 mmHg. She has a body mass index of 25.5kg/m2, is a nonsmoker. There are no features to suggest a secondary cause for her hypertension.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her blood pressure?
1) Alpha-Blocker
2) Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor
3) Angiotensin Blocker
4) Beta-blocker
5) Calcium channel blocker
Answer-5

55- A 17-year-old woman loses consciousness while out jogging one afternoon, as she has done for many years. She is taken to Accident and Emergency, where a chest X-ray, CT brain scan, FBC, and biochemistry are all normal. Over the next year, she develops mild dyspnea and fatigue. There are several episodes of pre-syncope. After another syncopal episode, she is referred to a cardiologist who orders and ECG that shows changes of left ventricular hypertrophy and broad Q waves.
An echocardiogram reveals left ventricular and septal hypertrophy, small left ventricle, and reduced septal excursion. The septum has a "ground glass" appearance. She then dies suddenly and unexpectedly. The microscopic appearance of the septum with trichrome stain reveals myofiber disarray. Which of the following conditions is she most likely to have had?
1) Diabetes mellitus
2) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
3) Rheumatic heart disease
4) Systemic lupus erythematosus
5) Viral myocarditis
Answer-2

56- Which of the following is true regarding the coronary circulation?
1) Adenosine is the most important mediator of metabolic vasodilation.
2) Coronary blood flow is independent of myocardial oxygen consumption due to autoregulation.
3) Coronary blood flow within a normal range of blood pressure is primarily determined by perfusion pressure.
4) Increased myocardial O2 demand is met primarily by increasing O2 extraction.
5) The vasodilatory reserve of the epicardium and endocardium is equivalent under normal physiologic conditions.
Answer-1

57- A 54 year old man presents with central crushing chest pain. Examination is normal. 12-lead ECG shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF and ST depression in V1, V2 and V3. Which coronary artery is occluded?
1) Circumflex
2) Left Anterior Descending
3) Left Main Stem
4) Obtuse Marginal
5) Right Coronary Artery
Answer-5

58- Which of the following is true regarding mitral stenosis?
1) it is tolerated well in pregnancy
2) there is characteristically a low wedge pressure
3) in AF, the opening snap disappears
4) The opening snap is not heard when the mitral valve is heavily calcified
5) Doppler U/S is usually inaccurate in determining severity
Answer-4

59- A 26-year-old man is noted to have cyanosis of the lower limbs and clubbing of the toes but not the fingers. Which of the following statements is true?
1) He has Eisenmenger's syndrome.
2) He has coarctation of the aorta.
3) He is likely to have a loud continuous 'machinery' murmur below the left clavicle.
4) He is likely to need urgent surgery.
5) He has had a Blalock shunt operation.
Answer-1

60- A 74-year-old man has had increasingly severe, throbbing headaches for several months, centered on the right. There is a palpable tender cord-like area over his right temple. His heart rate is regular with no murmurs, gallops, or rubs. Pulses are equal and full in all extremities, BP is 110/85 mmHg. A biopsy of this lesion is obtained, and histologic examination reveals a muscular artery with lumenal narrowing and medial inflammation with lymphocytes, macrophages, and occasional
giant cells. He improves with a course of high-dose corticosteroid therapy. Which of the following laboratory test findings is most likely to
be present with this disease?
1) Anti-double stranded DNA titer of 1:1024
2) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 110 mm/hr
3) HDL cholesterol of 0.6 mmol/L
4) pANCA titer of 1:160
5) Rheumatoid factor titer of 80 IU/mL
Answer-2

61- A 27 year old woman complained of palpitations, breathlessness and chest pain, radiating to the left arm. These symptoms had developed six weeks previously, after she had witnessed her father dying from a myocardial infarction. In the past 10 years she had been investigated for abdominal pain, headaches, joint pains, and dyspareunia, without serious cause being found for these symptoms.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
1) Depressive episode
2) Factitious disorder
3) Generalized anxiety disorder
4) Hypochondriasis
5) Somatization disorder
Answer-5

62- A 35-year-old healthy woman has a faint systolic murmur on physical examination. An echocardiogram is performed, and she is found to have a bicuspid aortic valve. In explaining the meaning of this finding to her, the most appropriate statement is that?
1) An aortic valve prosthesis may eventually need to be placed
2) Other family members may have the same condition
3) She should be treated with a cholesterol-lowering agent
4) The problem resulted from past injection drug usage
5) This is one manifestation of an underlying autoimmune disease process
Answer-1
Bicuspid aortic valve is perhaps the most common form of congenital heart disease in adults. Bicuspid valves have a propensity to wear out and calcify with aging.
Bicuspid aortic valve tends to be a sporadic.

63- Which of the following findings is the most specific for a diagnosis of myocardial infarction?
1) an akinetic area of LV wall motion on ECHO
2) elevated cardiac enzymes
3) evolution of Q waves on ECG
4) history of severe chest pain
5) ST elevation on ECG
Answer-3

64- A 15 year old female presents following a sore throat with chest pain, fever, and a skin rash. Examination reveals a diastolic murmur. Her ASO titre is elevated. Which of the following is a major criterion for the diagnosis of Rheumatic fever?
1) Fever
2) Raised ESR
3) Polyarthritis
4) Migratory erythema
5) Prolonged PR interval
Answer-3

65- A 55-year-old man with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus and Ischaemic Heart Disease has been researching the Internet! He asks your opinion on Laser Transmyocardial Revascularisation. Which of the following statements about this technique is true?
1) avoids the need for major surgery
2) damages the endocardium
3) involves destruction of coronary stenoses
4) is of particular use in severe proximal coronary artery disease
5) stimulates collateral vessel formation
Answer-2

66- On auscultation of the heart of a 30 year old female a loud first heart sound is heard. Which of the following may be responsible for thsi auscultatory feature?
1) a long preceding diastolic interval
2) Atrial premature beat
3) increrased pulmonary arterial pressure
4) increased systemic arterial pressure
5) rupture of a papillary muscle
Answer-2

67- A 64-year-old man is admitted with a right femoral neck fracture following a fall. Also seen in the radiograph of the pelvis are several prominent calcified vessels. What is the most appropriate next step in management of this finding?
1) anticoagulate with heparin
2) Ignore it
3) Order a pulmonary ventilation-perfusion scan
4) Request a serum troponin test
5) Start the patient on a nitrate infusion
Answer-2

68- A 59-year-old man who was active all his life develops sudden severe anterior chest pain that radiates to his back. Within minutes, he is unconscious. He has a history of hypertension, but a recent treadmill test had revealed no evidence for cardiac disease. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1) Acute myocardial infarction
2) Group A streptococcal infection
3) Pulmonary embolus
4) Right middle cerebral artery embolus
5) Tear in the aortic intima
Answer-5
The history is typical of aortic dissection. All the others could cause sudden collapse but not with acute chest pain radiating to the back in the presence of a
recent normal exercise test. Acute MI is possible but not the most likely.

69- Which ONE of the following statements is true about the diastolic Austin Flint murmur?
1) It is associated with a loud first heart sound.
2) It is an early sign of aortic regurgitation
3) It can be distinguished from the murmur of mitral stenosis by absence of presystolic accentuation
4) It is due to partial closure of the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve
5) It does not occur in aortic incompetence secondary to an aortitis
Answer-4
The Austin Flint murmur is a low frequency mid/late diastolic murmur which may show pre-systolic accentuation which is virtually indistinguishable from that of
mitral stenosis. There is no correlation between presence of murmur and severity of AR, or aetiology. The first heart sound is normal but in severe cases, it may be
absent.

70- A 28-year-old man who is known to have Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy has an out of hospital cardiac arrest and is successfully resuscitated. What is the most appropriate mode of treatment?
1) Alcohol Septal Ablation
2) Amiodarone
3) Beta Blocker
4) Implantable Defibrillator
5) Myomectomy
Answer-4
Patients with HCM are at increased risk of sudden cardiac death due to VF/VT. Implantable Cardio Defibrillators (ICD) are superior to Amiodarone or Beta
Blockers for preventing this. Reducing outflow tract obstruction with myomectomy or Alcohol Septal Ablation does not reduce the risk of SCD.

71- A 14 year old boy presents with fever. Which of the following might contribute to a diagnosis of rheumatic fever?
1) The finding of target lesions on the hands.
2) The finding of tender nodules in the fingertips.
3) A prolonged PR interval on ECG.
4) A CRP of 10.
5) Positive Romberg's sign.
Answer-3

72- A 40-year-old man attending a routing screening has a blood pressure of 166/100 mmHg. Two weeks later his blood pressure was 150/90 mmHg. He does not smoke. He drinks 35 units alcohol / week. His body mass index (BMI) is 30 kg/m2 (20 - 25). What is the best management strategy?
1) amlodipine
2) atenolol
3) bendrofluazide
4) enalapril
5) lifestyle advice
Answer-5

73- A 19-year-old woman is found to have a cardiac murmur characterized by a mid-systolic click. An echocardiogram reveals mitral insufficiency with upward displacement of one leaflet. There is also aortic root dilation to 4 cm. She has a dislocated right ocular crystalline lens. She dies suddenly and unexpectedly. The medical examiner finds a prolapsed mitral valve with elongation, thinning, and rupture of chordae tendineae. A mutation involving which of the following genes is most
likely have be present in this patient?
1) Beta-myosin
2) CFTR
3) FGFR
4) Fibrillin
5) Spectrin
Answer-4

74- A 51 year old businessman complains of dyspnoea on exertion. He recently returned from a business trip to the USA. He has distant heart sounds on auscultation of the chest. A chest radiograph reveals that there is a thin rim of calcification surrounding the cardiac outline. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for these findings?
1) Uraemia
2) Tuberculosis
3) Group B coxsackie virus
4) Sarcoidosis
5) Metastatic carcinoma
Answer-2

75- A 60-year-old woman is admitted with sudden onset of chest pain and is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction. Her acute illness is complicated by low blood pressure and poor tissue perfusion for several days. Her serum lactate becomes elevated. Her serum urea and creatinine are noted to be increasing.
Day 1 Day 2 Day 3
urea (mmol/L) 8 22 30
creatinine (µmol/L) 116 140 200
Granular and hyaline casts are present on microscopic urinalysis. The renal lesion that is most likely to be present in this situation is?
1) Acute tubular necrosis
2) Minimal change disease
3) Nodular glomeruloscerosis
4) Pyelonephritis
5) Renal vein thrombosis
Answer-1
Ischaemia, typically in hypotensive hospitalized patients, is the most frequent antecedent to acute tubular necrosis. Blood pressure should be maintained in
cardiogenic shock with fluids and / or inotropic agents.

76- A 45 year old male type 1 diabetic with a number of complex diabetic gastrointestinal complications is noted to have a PR interval of 0.18s, a QRS duration of 0.1s and a QT interval of 0.48s on routine ECG. Which of the following drugs may be responsible?
1) Cisapride
2) Octreotide
3) Co-trimoxazole
4) Domperidone
5) Cimetidine
Answer-1
Cisapride has been withdrawn due to the problem of prolonged QT interval and torsades de pointe. Prolonged QT is defined as greater than 0.45s. Other agents
include amitriptyline and pheonthiazines yet metoclopramide and dompaeridone are not associated.

77- You are asked to see a patient in the Intensive Care Unit who is short of breath and tachycardic to rule out a cardiac cause of her symptoms. A right heart catheter reveals that the mixed venous O2 saturation is 70%; the pulmonary capillary wedge O2 saturation is 97%. The haemoglobin is normal and the patient is afebrile. You are able to state which of the following?
1) her cardiac output is decreased
2) her cardiac output is normal
3) her heart is normal
4) she has high-output failure
5) she is in shock due to a non-cardiac cause
Answer-2

78- A 59-year-old man who was active all his life develops sudden severe anterior chest pain that radiates to his back. Within minutes, he is unconscious. He has a history of hypertension, but a recent treadmill test had revealed no evidence of cardiac disease.
Which of the following do you suspect?
1) Acute viral myocarditis
2) Group A streptococcal infection
3) Pulmonary embolus
4) Right middle cerebral artery embolus
5) Tear in the aortic intima
Answer-5

79- Concerning complete atrioventricular septal defects which of the following statements is true?
1) are seen frequently in patients with trisomy 21
2) frequently have aortic valve insufficiency
3) have a normal mitral valve structure
4) include a coronary sinus atrial septal defect
5) include a perimembranous ventricular septal defect
Answer-1

80- 21 year-old woman has a history of palpitations and light headedness. ECG shows short PR interval and inferior Q waves. Her symptoms improve with atenolol 25 mg/day but she has had two short episodes of similar symptoms in the previous 24 hours. What is the longterm management of choice?
1) Anticoagulation.
2) Oral amiodarone.
3) Oral digoxin.
4) Increase the dose of atenolol.
5) Radiofrequency ablation.
Answer-5
WPW can be associated with negative delta waves in II, III and aVF. The longterm management of choice is ablation of the accessory pathway.

81- A 60-year-old man's echocardiogram shows a dilated left ventricular cavity with the remainder of the other chamber sizes normal. The most likely diagnosis is which of the following?
1) aortic regurgitation
2) aortic stenosis
3) hypertensive heart disease
4) mitral regurgitation
5) mitral stenosis
Answer-1

82- Left axis deviation is seen on the ECG in which of the following conditions?
1) atrioventricular canal defects.
2) Ebstein's anomaly.
3) large ventricular septal defect.
4) patent ductus arteriosus.
5) tetralogy of Fallot.
Answer-1

83- Which of the following is true regarding the action of Clopidogrel?
1) It inhibits cyclo-oxygenase
2) It is an ADP receptor antagonist
3) It is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor
4) It is a selective factor Xa inhibitor
5) It is Hydroxymethyl Coenzyme A inhibitor
Answer-2

84- Which ONE of the following is associated with Marfan's syndrome?
1) Autosomal recessive inheritance
2) increased upper : lower body ratio
3) Mental retardation
4) Pulmonary stenosis
5) Retinal detachment
Answer-5

85- A 30-year-old intravenous drug abuser develops acute aortic regurgitation due to infective endocarditis. Which of the following is least likely to be found on clinical examination?
1) decreased cardiac output
2) decrescendo diastolic murmur
3) hypotension
4) mitral valve pre-closure
5) peripheral vasodilatation
Answer-5

86- A 67 year old man presents with sudden onset atrial fibrillation (ventricular rate of 150/minute). His serum creatinine concentration was 250 umol/L (70-110).
What is the main factor that determines the choice of loading dose of digoxin in this patient?
1) Absorption
2) Apparent volume of distribution
3) Lipid solubility
4) Plasma half-life
5) Renal clearance
Answer-5

87- A 17-year-old girl is short in stature for her age. She has not shown any changes of puberty. She has a webbed neck. Her vital signs include Temperature 36.6°C Respiratory rate 18/min Pulse 75 bpm and BP 165/85 mmHg. On physical examination, she has a continuous murmur heard over both the front of the chest as well as her back. Her lower extremities are cool with poor capillary filling. A chest radiograph reveals a prominent left heart border, no oedema or effusions, and rib notching. Which of the following pathologic lesions best explains these findings?
1) Constriction of the aorta past the ductus arteriosus
2) Lack of development of the spiral septum and partial absence of conus musculature
3) Shortening and thickening of chordae tendineae of the mitral valve
4) Single large atrioventricular valve
5) Supravalvular narrowing in the aortic root
Answer-1
She has coarctation of the aorta, and the constriction is postductal, allowing prolonged survival. Her physical characteristics also suggest Turner syndrome
(monosomy X).

88- Elevation of the jugular venous pressure during inspiration is most
likely to be found in which of the following situations?
1) a normal physical exam
2) cardiac tamponade
3) constrictive pericarditis
4) dilated cardiomyopathy
5) myocarditis
Answer-3

89- 75 year-old man with a history of anterior MI is taking amiodarone 400mg/day for history of VT. He has a prolonged QT interval on his ECG.
What is the most appropriate management?
1) Admit to hospital for monitoring.
2) Atenolol.
3) Change amiodarone to flecainide.
4) Continue with amiodarone.
5) Discontinue amiodarone immediately.
Answer-5

90- A 58-year-old man has had an enlarging abdomen for several months. He has experienced no abdominal or chest pain. On physical examination he has a non-tender abdomen with no masses palpable, but there is a fluid thrill. An abdominal Ultrasound Scan shows a large abdominal fluid collection with a small cirrhotic liver. A chest X-ray shows a globally enlarged heart. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be present?
1) Dilated cardiomyopathy
2) Lymphocytic myocarditis
3) Myocardial amyloid deposition
4) Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis
5) Severe occlusive coronary atherosclerosis
Answer-1
This man has alcoholic liver cirrhosis with ascites. The cardiomyopathy of alcoholism is a dilated or congestive form.

91- Angina due to an imbalance between O2 supply and demand without atherosclerosis would most likely be seen in which of the following circumstances?
1) aortic regurgitation
2) cardiac tamponade
3) pulmonary regurgitation
4) right heart failure
5) tricuspid regurgitation
Answer-1

92- An 18 year old man had repeated episodes of breathlessness and palpitations, lasting about 20 minutes and resolving gradually. There were no abnormal physical signs.
What is the most likely cause of these features?
1) Drug abuse
2) Panic disorder
3) Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
4) Personality disorder
5) Thyrotoxicosis
Answer-2

93- A previously well 60 year old lady is admitted with an Acute Anterior Myocardial Infarction. A random blood glucose concentration was found to be 12.1 mmol/L (<6.7).
What is the optimal management of her blood sugar?
1) Diet
2) Gliclazide
3) Intravenous insulin plus dextrose
4) Metformin
5) Subcutaneous insulin
Answer-3

94- A 65-year-old was advised to start oral digoxin at a dose of 250 µg daily. His physician explained that the full effect of this treatment would not be apparent for at least a week. Which one of the following pharmacokinetic variables did the physician use to give this explanation?
1) bioavailablity
2) half-life
3) plasma protein binding
4) renal clearance
5) volume of distribution
Answer-2

95- A 75 year-old lady presents with sudden breathlessness and palpitations. On examination, she was observed to have an irregular heart beat with rate of 140 bpm, BP 150/84 and normal heart sounds.
On auscultation of the chest, Fine basal crepitations are heard. An ECG confirms AF and an old inferior MI. She is anticoagulated with heparin and given diuretics. Her heart rate remains rapid. What is the most appropriate management of the lady's AF?
1) DCCV.
2) IV amiodarone.
3) IV betablocker.
4) IV digoxin.
5) Oral quinidine therapy.
Answer-4

96- A 45 year old female presents with a two day history of fever and joint pains. She has a past history of hypertension for which she is receiving anti-hypertensives. On examination she has a temperature of 38 Celsius, a facial rash and slight swelling with tenderness of the wrist and ankle joints. Which of the following anti-hypertensives may be
responsible for her presentation.
1) Minoxidil
2) Phenoxybenzamine
3) Hydrallazine
4) Alpha-methyldopa
5) Bendrofluazide
Answer-3

97- A 70-year-old man with dilated cardiomyopathy remains symptomatic in NYHA class 2 due to chronic heart failure. On examination his pulse is 90 regular, BP 140/90, heart sounds normal, chest auscultation did not reveal any abnormalities. He is currently taking Lisinopril 30 mg OD and Frusemide 80 mg OD. What is the best
treatment option?
1) Amiodarone
2) Carvedilol
3) Digoxin
4) Spironolactone
5) Valsartan
Answer-2

98- A 40-year-old man received an orthotopic cardiac transplant 7 years ago to treat a dilated cardiomyopathy. Since that time he has been healthy, with no episodes of rejection or infection. Over the next year, however, he develops fatigue with exercise. He has worsening pedal edema and orthopnea. On physical examination, his vital signs are Temperature 36.3°C, Pulse 78, Respiratory rate 16, and BP 130/70 mm Hg. There are no murmurs, rubs, or gallops audible. Bibasilar crackles in
the lungs are audible. Which of the following conditions is most likely to account for these findings?
1) Angiosarcoma
2) Coronary arteriopathy
3) Mitral valvular stenosis
4) Myocarditis
5) Pulmonary hypertension
Answer-2

99- Which of the following statements concering the treatment of acute myocardial infarction is correct?
1) A pansystolic murmur developing within the first 24 hours does not require further investigation.
2) Dipyridamole therapy reduces reinfarction within the first year.
3) Heparin is beneficial if given with streptokinase.
4) Prophylactic lignocaine given in the first 48 hours is effective in preventing ventricular fibrillation
5) Treatment with a dihydropyridine calcium antagonist is associated with increased cardiovascular mortality.
Answer-5

100- A 70-year-old man is admitted with an acute Q-wave inferior Myocardial Infarction. On day 5, he suddenly develops pulmonary oedema and a loud systolic murmur. Which of the following would be the most useful in establishing a diagnosis?
1) chest X-ray
2) coronary arteriography
3) ECG
4) right heart catheterisation and oximetry
5) serum cardiac enzymes
Answer-4

101- A 65-year-old man has longstanding stable heart failure treated with frusemide and enalapril. He complains of swelling in his left knee and his GP treats him with Rofecoxib, a cyclo-oxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitor. Two weeks later the patient has increasing breathlessness and ankle oedema.
Which one of the following effects of rofecoxib is the most likely to explain his symptoms?
1) decreased absorption of frusemide from the gut
2) decreased myocardial contractility
3) reduced effective action of enalapril
4) the onset of anaemia
5) the onset of fluid retention
Answer-5

102- Which of the following statements are true of coronary artery anatomy?
1) Right bundle branch block in acute anterior myocardial infarction suggests obstruction prior to the first septal branch of the left anterior descending coronary
artery
2) the posterior descending artery is usually a branch of the circumflex artery
3) The sinus node is supplied by a branch of the right coronary in over 90% of subjects.
4) The AV node is supplied by the left anterior descending coronary artery.
5) The left main stem is about 4 cm long
Answer-1

103- A 34 year old male presents with episodes of breathlessness on exertion. Examination reveals a loud P2 and fixed splitting of the second sound. Which of the following may be responsible for these signs?
1) Maternal chicken pox infection
2) Maternal thalidomide therapy
3) 47 XXY karyotype
4) Homocystinuria
5) Excess maternal alcohol consumption
Answer-5

104- A 72-year-old man presents with an episode of collapse. He has had two similar episodes recently, each lasting about one minute. Four years ago he suffered an anterior myocardial infarction.
On examination he was orientated and symptom-free with a regular pulse rate of 80 bpm, BP 140/80 mmHg and the apex beat was displaced to the left. There was an apical systolic murmur. There were no signs of trauma. ECG showed sinus rhythm, Q waves and ST segment elevation anteriorly without reciprocal depression.
What is the diagnosis?
1) acute anterior myocardial infarction
2) cerebrocasvular accident
3) epileptic seizure
4) pulmonary embolism
5) ventricular tachycardia
Answer-5

105 - Deficiency of which one of the following trace elements is implicated as a cause of cardiomyopathy?
1) chromium
2) copper
3) manganese
4) selenium
5) zinc
Answer-4
Selenium deficiency is one of the reversible causes of dilated cardiomyopathy.

106- A 40-year-old man attending a routing screening has a blood pressure of 166/100 mmHg. Two weeks later his blood pressure was 150/90 mmHg. He does not smoke. He drinks 35 units alcohol / week. His body mass index (BMI) is 30 kg/m2 (20 - 25). What is the best management strategy?
1) amlodipine
2) atenolol
3) bendrofluazide
4) enalapril
5) lifestyle advice
Answer-5

107- A 78 year old female is referred by her GP with high blood pressure. Over the last three months her blood pressure is noted to be around 180/80 mmHg. She has a body mass index of 25.5kg/m2, is a nonsmoker. There are no features to suggest a secondary cause for her hypertension. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her blood pressure?
1) Alpha-Blocker
2) Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor
3) Angiotensin Blocker
4) Beta-blocker
5) Calcium channel blocker
Answer-5

108- Which of the following compounds has a vasodilating effect?
1) Antidiuretic hormone
2) Calcitonin
3) Endothelin
4) Renin
5) Somatostatin
Answer-2

109- A 14-year-old boy presents with hypertension. Which of the following statements concerning hypertension in the young is true?
1) Sodium nitroprusside is useful for the long-term treatment of severe cases.
2) Headache is the usual presenting feature.
3) It is defined as systolic blood pressure above the 99th centile for age.
4) Abnormalities are frequently seen on DMSA scan.
5) Aortic coarctation is the commonest secondary cause.
Answer-4

110- A new antihypertensive drug needs to be investigated to establish its relative potency.
Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for this purpose?
1) bioassay
2) case-control study
3) double-blind, randomized, placebo controlled study
4) postmarketing surveillance
5) sequential trial
Answer-1

111- A 53-year-old man presented with hypertension of 150/110 and is found to have the following results on investigation. Raised serum sodium, raised urinary potassium excretion and normal serum renin. What is the likely diagnosis?
1) Adrenocortical adenoma
2) Coarctation of aorta
3) Malignant hypertension
4) Pheochromocytoma
5) Renal tumour
Answer-1

112-A 29-year-old female who is 22 weeks pregnant is noted to have a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg on 3 separate occasions. Urine protein is negative. Which of the following would be the first line treatment?
1) alpha Methyl Dopa
2) Atenolol
3) Magnesium Sulphate
4) Nifedipine
5) Salbutamol
Answer-1

113-A 58-year-old man presents with sudden onset chest pain. He has a known history of ischaemic heart disease. ECG shows ST segment elevation in V1-V5 without reciprocal depression. In which territory is the infarction most likely to have take place?
1) Anterior
2) Inferior
3) Lateral
4) Inferio-lateral
5) Posterior
Answer-1
This MI is likely to be in the LAD and represents an anterior MI.

114-An 54-year-old male redevelops chest pain 72 hours after treatment for an anterior myocardial infarction. Which of the following markers will be the most sensitive in detecting reinfarction?
1) CK-MB
2) LDH
3) Myoglobin
4) Troponin I
5) Troponin T
Answer-1
Although troponin is highly sensitive and specific it remains elevated for at least one week after infarction. Similarly LDH will be present for approximately one
week after infarction. After myocardial infarction, CK-MB levels become elevated within 3 to 8 hours, peak within 9 to 30 hours, and return to normal after 48 to 72
hours. Although myoglobin has a short half life and rises quickly after an MI and is cleared after an MI, it is not specific enough for diagnostic use.

Read More => Cardiology Interview Questions & Answers

30 TOP Cardiology Interview Questions and answers pdf

Cardiology nurse interview questions and answers, questions to ask during Cardiology interview, Cardiology job interview questions, Cardiology fellowship interview questions, frequently asked questions at an interview for cardiac nurses, consultant Cardiologist interview questions, interview with a cardiologist, Cardiovascular system questions and answers
Cardiology Interview Questions and answers

Cardiologist Interview Questions and Answers List

1. What do you mean by Dysrhythmia?
Dysrhythmia is an abnormal, irregular, defective and disturbed heart rhythm which is demonstrated by the Electrocardiographic tracing.

2. What do you mean by Blood Tracing?
Blood Tracing is the process of tracing of the all capillaries, veins, arteries going from the right ventricle to the abdominal visceral organs and back up to the heart.

3. What do you mean by Cardiomyopathy?
Cardiomyopathy is a heart muscle disease which occurs after the failing and weakening of the function of the myocardium i.e. the actual heart muscle. It is an abnormal heart condition in which the heart is dilated i.e. having the poor pumping power, preventive i.e. impaired capability of the heart to fill, and hypertrophic means enlarged heart.

4. What do you mean by Cardiac Pacemaker?
A Cardiac Pacemaker is the Electrical System of the heart. It is initiated by the chemical impulses and controls the rhythms of the heart. It directly controls the heart rate.

5. What are the diseases of the Blood Vessels?
There are several diseases of the Blood Vessels. They are:
Vaculitis, Aneurysm, ECS i.e. Economy Class Syndrome, Varicose veins, Atherosclerosis, Diseases of the Aorta and Carotid Arteries.

6. Name the diseases of Aorta and Carotid Arteries.
the diseases of Aorta is Coarctation of aorta, Aortic dissection and Aortic aneurysm and the diseases of Carotid Arteries are Carotid artery disease and Carotid artery dissection.

7. What are the various types of Diagnostic tests?
They are: Blood tests, Echocardiogram, Cardiovascular Magnetic Resonance, Cardiac Stress test and Listening with the Stethoscope i.e. Auscultation. It also includes ECG or EKG i.e. Electrocardiogram.

8. What are the devices used to maintain the Blood Pressure?
they are Artificial Heart, Heart Lung Machine, Ventricular Assist Device and Intra Aortic Balloon Pump.

9. Finally, we want to ask that why you have chosen the field of Cardiologist?
I chose the area of Cardiologist because of my interest in this field. I wanted to be capable enough to think about the people in need specially those died due to the heart diseases. I chose this because I identified myself devoted in this area to serve people.

10. What are the various duties of a Pediatrician?
he provides all types of immediate health care duties. He acts as a promoter for the children in approving the public education, entrance to the health care and services to the children. These procedures have guided to better development and health of young people or children as well as a dwindling of morbidity and mortality rates.

11. What is your area of specialization and why you have chosen this area for your specialization?
I have done my specialization in the field of Cardiology and Surgery and Diseases of Special Organs and Systems. I have chosen this area because I love to accompany with the children. I also know that if an infant is cured at the early age there will be a dream world free from the diseases.

12. What is the difference in the Adult and Pediatrics Medicines?
there are so many differences. It depends upon the size of the body and the physiology of the adult and children. A major difference between a Pediatric and an adult medicine is that the children are minors and in most of jurisdictions they cannot make any decisions for themselves. Therefore, the issues of the responsibility, seclusion, legal responsibility and informed permission must always be considered. In a sense, Pediatricians have to ask their parents before treating the children.

13. What do you mean by Cardiomyopathy?
Sir, Cardiomyopathy is a kind of heart muscle disease which occurs after the failing and weakening of the function of the myocardium i.e. the actual heart muscle. It is an abnormal heart condition in which the heart is dilated i.e. having the poor pumping power, preventive i.e. impaired capability of the heart to fill, and hypertrophic means enlarged heart.

14. What are the positional changes in pain noted by patients with pericarditis?
Pain due to pericarditis is usually aggravated by thoracic motion, cough, or deep breathing; it may be relieved by sitting up and leaning forward

15. How long does it take for total CPK levels in the blood to return to normal after a myocardial infarction?
for return to normal range is between 36 to 72 hours

16. What is the kussmal sign?
Kussmaul’s sign is the observation of a jugular venous pressure (JVP, the filling of the jugular vein) that rises
with inspiration. It can be seen in some forms of heart disease. Ordinarily the JVP falls with inspiration due to reduced pressure in the expanding thoracic cavity. Kussmaul’s sign suggests impaired filling of the right
ventricle due to either fluid in the pericardial space or a poorly compliant myocardium or pericardium.

17. What is the best most specific and sensitive indicator for a Re-Myocardial Infartion(Post MI)?
CPK-MB’s Coz they return normal after 4-5 days but the Troponins are raised for 4 weeks after 1st MI.

18. Describe the classical signs of mitral stenosis?
diastolic rumple

19. What is peripheral resistance?
It is the resistance ofeered to the flowing of blood by the vesselspresent in the Periphery ie the arteriole whose diameter varies between 100 to 4oo micromillimeter & also by the smooth muscle of the precapillary sphincter.

20. Who really performed the first open heart surgery, Daniel Hale Williams, or Ludwig Rehn?
daniel hale williams

21. What was the surgical method for the first open heart surgery?
byepass surgery

22. What are the most common causes of cardiovascular related syncope?
Arrhythmias and neurocardiogenic syncope.

23. How often does rupture of the pulmonary artery occur with right heart catheterization?
0.2% of the time.
5 times

24. What is the effect of inspiration on the return of venous blood to the heart?
due to negative intrathoracic pressure and antigravity direction valvesprevent backward flow of blood

25. What are the electocardiogram findings of a Mobitz type II second degree AV block?
Non Progressive Prolonged PR interval with absent QRS complex depends on after no of regular P wave.

26. How often will the EKG be abnormal in patients having an MI?
85% of PATIENTS having MI show evidence on EKG.

27. Normal JVD is 6-8 cm, what 5 conditions are associated with increased JVD?
Congestive cardiac failure due to Ischemic heart disease Cor pulmonale Valvular heart disease like mitral stenosis Congenital heart disease like VSD Pericarditis and pericardial effusion

28. What are the reversible causes of pulseless electrical activity?
6 H’s and 6 T’s…
hypovolemia
hypothermia
hypoxia
hypo/hyperkalemia
hypoglycemia
hydrogens (acidosis)

trauma
tablets/toxins
thrombosis (MI)
thrombosis (PE)
tension PTX
tamponade

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